Sen. Spencer Deery

Provides that the governor may convene meetings with individuals from certain state agencies to work toward communicating a single, strategic economic development plan for the state. Provides that the state board of accounts shall act as the economic development ombudsman (ombudsman) for the Indiana economic development corporation (IEDC) and a nonprofit subsidiary of the IEDC (nonprofit subsidiary). Requires the state board of accounts to designate an individual to serve as the ombudsman. Sets forth the ombudsman's duties, including the recommendation of policies to the general assembly concerning economic development and transparency matters. Provides that the ombudsman (subject to the state examiner's approval) may employ or contract with assistants necessary to assist the ombudsman in carrying out the ombudsman's duties. Establishes circumstances under which the ombudsman is required to adopt a budget before the ombudsman's costs, including the costs of any assistants, in carrying out the ombudsman's duties are paid from appropriations made to the IEDC and when the ombudsman may bill the IEDC for those costs without using the budget procedure added by the bill. Provides for appointment to the board of the IEDC of two nonvoting, advisory members who are members of the general assembly. Requires the IEDC, before purchasing land that exceeds 100 acres in a county, to first give notice to the county or municipality, or both, in which the land is located not later than 30 days before the closing date for the purchase. Requires the IEDC to establish a dashboard that includes longitudinal representations of certain economic development data derived from elements required to be included in the economic incentives and compliance report. Requires the IEDC to analyze the potential impact of a proposed economic development investment on the costs to provide the following utility services to ratepayers: (1) Water. (2) Wastewater. (3) Electricity. (4) Natural gas. Specifies that in performing the analysis, the IEDC must consider each of the following: (1) The existing utility infrastructure available to serve the project. (2) Any new utility infrastructure needed to serve the project. (3) Water resource availability for the project. Provides that if a proposed economic development investment is projected to negatively impact ratepayers, the IEDC is required to develop and implement a mitigation plan. Allows the IEDC to consult with certain state agencies, utilities providing utility services to the project area, local units of government, and consumer and ratepayer advocates in performing the analysis and mitigation requirements added by the bill.

Maddy summaryThis is a ceremonial Senate resolution (SR 1) honoring Lieutenant Governor Suzanne Crouch for her service upon her retirement. It does not create new laws or affect any policies; it is a symbolic gesture recognizing her role. The resolution was introduced by Senators Bray and Yoder, adopted unanimously by voice vote on January 8, 2025, and has no binding effect or direct impact on constituents.

Amends the duties of state educational institutions' diversity committees. Provides that certain offices or individuals established or employed by a state educational institution (institution) regarding diversity programming must include within the mission of the office or position programming that substantially promotes both cultural and intellectual diversity. Establishes various requirements and restrictions for institutions regarding free inquiry, free expression, and intellectual diversity that does the following: (1) Requires the establishment of certain policies regarding: (A) disciplinary actions for certain persons that materially and substantially disrupt protected expressive activity; (B) limiting or restricting the granting of tenure or a promotion if certain conditions related to free inquiry, free expression, and intellectual diversity are not met; and (C) disciplinary actions that will be taken if, after a review, a determination has been made that a tenured faculty member has failed to meet certain criteria related to free inquiry, free expression, and intellectual diversity. (2) Requires the review and consideration, at least every five years, of certain criteria related to free inquiry, free expression, and intellectual diversity. (3) Requires the establishment of a procedure that allows students and employees to submit complaints that a faculty member or contractor is not meeting certain criteria related to free inquiry, free expression, and intellectual diversity and establishes requirements regarding the procedure and submitted complaints. (4) Establishes consideration requirements before an institution renews an employment agreement or other contract with, makes a bonus decision regarding, or completes a review or performance assessment of a faculty member or contractor. (5) Prohibits requiring an applicant, employee, or contractor to pledge allegiance to or make a statement of personal support for: (A) certain policies or actions; or (B) political or ideological movements. (6) Establishes restrictions regarding awarding admission, enrollment, employment, benefits, hiring, reappointment, promotion, or granting tenure to an applicant, employee, or contractor on the basis of the viewpoints expressed in a submitted pledge or statement. (7) Requires certain information be included in an institution's programming for new students. (8) Requires the adoption of a statement on neutrality that makes a distinction between the official positions of an institution from the individual viewpoints of the institution's employees, contractors, students, and alumni. (9) Allows the commission for higher education (commission) to establish a survey that attempts to collect information from students regarding the current perceptions of whether free speech and academic freedom are recognized and fostered by an institution in a manner that welcomes expression of different opinions and ideologies and requires an institution to promote and provide the survey to students. (10) Establishes various reporting requirements by institutions or the commission concerning complaints submitted regarding faculty members or contractors who are not meeting certain criteria related to free inquiry, free expression, and intellectual diversity. (11) Provides that certain individuals may request the commission to review a final decision by an institution concerning a violation of these provisions. Provides that the commission may enter into an agreement with the office of administrative law proceedings to review violations of certain provisions and issue an opinion on behalf of the commission. Requires each institution to submit certain information by September 1, 2024, and on September 1 of each year thereafter.

Provides that a school safety plan developed by a school corporation or charter school must establish an armed intruder drill protocol. Requires safe school committees to develop a policy that considers the effect of armed intruder drills on the safety and mental health of students, faculty, and staff. Prohibits an armed intruder drill that includes sensory components or activities from: (1) requiring student participation; or (2) taking place during regular school hours if a majority of the student body is present on school property. Allows a school corporation or charter school that: (1) employs a school resource officer; or (2) enters into a contract or a memorandum of understanding with a local law enforcement agency, private entity, or nonprofit corporation to employ a school resource officer; to participate in the 1977 fund. Provides that a school resource officer hired or rehired after June 30, 2024, who is a member of the 1977 fund shall remain in the 1977 fund. Provides that a school resource officer may become a member of the 1977 fund by meeting certain age and training requirements. Makes corresponding changes.

Provides that a county fiscal body may provide a stipend, not to exceed $2,500, to a circuit court clerk that serves as a voter registration officer each year in which a general election is held. Requires a political subdivision to upload to the Indiana transparency website any contract: (1) related to the provision of fire services or emergency medical services; or (2) entered into with another unit or entity that provides fire services or emergency medical services. Requires a political subdivision to annually attest that the political subdivision uploaded any contract related to the provision of fire services or emergency medical services as a part of the political subdivision budgeting process and specifies the consequence for failure to satisfy the attestation requirement. Provides that for purposes of public purchasing, the term "public funds" does not include proceeds of bonds payable exclusively by, or used by, a private entity. Provides a 15% procurement price preference to a business offering to provide supplies or services under a contract awarded by a state agency to a business that provides "specialized employee services" to its employees. Extends the duration of an entrepreneur and enterprise district (district) to the later of: (1) December 31, 2029 (rather than December 31, 2024); or (2) five years after the date the district is designated. Amends provisions of a statute pertaining to the assessment of rental property. Requires the department of local government finance (department) to notify the county assessor of the department's tentative assessment, or information related to tentative valuation changes, of a utility company's distributable property not later than June 1. Reinstates a provision that was repealed in SEA 325-2023 (P.L.182-2023) that includes as a "homestead" property that is an individual's principal place of residence, is located in Indiana, and is owned by an entity, if the individual is a shareholder, partner, or member of the entity that owns the property. Requires a county auditor to submit an amended certified statement of the assessed value for the ensuing year to the department by the later of: (1) September 1; or (2) 15 days after the certified statement is submitted to the department. Requires the proper officers of a political subdivision that desire to appropriate more money for a particular year than the amount prescribed in the budget for that year as finally determined to hold a public hearing after submitting information regarding the proposed additional appropriation to the department's computer gateway. Provides for a maximum property tax levy increase for Knox Township in Jay County. Prohibits certain civil taxing units that determine they cannot carry out their governmental functions for an ensuing calendar year under various levy limitations from submitting an appeal unless the civil taxing unit receives approval from the appropriate fiscal body to submit the appeal. Similarly prohibits a participating unit of a fire protection territory from submitting an appeal unless each participating unit of the fire protection territory has adopted a resolution approving submission of the appeal. Requires the department, regarding the referendum process for bonds or leases for certain projects, to certify its approval or recommendations to the county auditor and the county election board not more than 10 days after both the required certification of the county auditor and the language of the public question are submitted to the department for review. Provides for the staggering of terms for property tax assessment board of appeals members. Provides that if the department determines that certified computer software or a certified provider is not in compliance with certain specifications or standards or the rules of the department, the department may request that the provider develop a corrective action plan. Provides that a contract with a computer provider under a corrective action plan is not void unless the department: (1) determines that the provider has failed to substantially correct the noncompliance; and (2) revokes the provider's certification. Establishes corrective action plan provisions for noncompliant computer providers. Provides the amount of the additional penalty added to taxes payable if a person fails to file a personal property return within 30 days after the due date. Amends a provision regarding the local income tax rate for local costs of the state judicial system in the county. Requires the department to approve a lower levy freeze tax rate if it finds that the lower rate, in addition to: (1) the supplemental distribution as determined in an adopted resolution; and (2) the amount in certain repealed stabilization funds, as applicable; would fund the levy freeze dollar amount. Provides that certain acute care hospitals may apply to the division of mental health and addiction for certification as a community mental health center. Requires the division of mental health and addiction to review applications for certification as a community mental health center: (1) to ensure an applicant meets certain standards; and (2) without consideration for previously established exclusive geographic primary service restrictions. Requires the department to send its decision regarding referendum language to the governing body of a school corporation not more than 10 days after: (1) the certification of the county auditor; and (2) the resolution is submitted to the department. Provides that, for purposes of the transportation levy component of an operations fund property tax levy, a school corporation, whose budget for the upcoming year is subject to review by a fiscal body, may not submit an appeal to the department unless the school corporation receives approval from the fiscal body. Provides that a county fiscal body may establish a salary schedule that includes a stipend, not to exceed $2,500 in a year, to be paid to the county auditor for duties when warranted as determined by the county fiscal body. Requires a county recorder to provide the owner of a farm with: (1) a copy of the recorded document that contains the name of the owner's farm; and (2) documentation of a description of the land to which the name of the farm applies. Provides that for a county having a United States government military base that is scheduled for closing, the expiration date of the allocation area may be extended for the purposes of paying certain expenses. Repeals a provision that prohibits a local unit from amending the boundaries of an economic improvement district (EID). Instead, allows a local unit to amend the boundaries of an EID only if an owner of real property wishes to include the owner's real property in the EID and voluntarily enters into a written agreement with the legislative body of the local unit in which the owner requests and consents to increasing the boundaries of the EID to include the owner's real property. Specifies that, for real property subject to such a written agreement that is subsequently sold to a new owner, the new owner of that real property may opt out of the prior owner's agreement. Provides that no ordinance or safety board action to fix compensation may provide for any increase in the compensation of any member of a police department or fire department, or any other appointee, from the prior budget year if the city has not fixed a budget, tax rate, and tax levy for the ensuing budget year. Allows a qualified taxpayer to file a property tax exemption application before September 1, 2024, for eligible property for assessment dates beginning within assessment dates occurring within the six years prior to the assessment date at issue. Provides that if a qualified taxpayer files a property tax exemption application for eligible property: (1) the property tax exemption for the eligible property is allowed and granted for the applicable assessment date by the county assessor and county auditor of the county in which the eligible property is located; and (2) the qualified taxpayer is not required to pay any property taxes, penalties, interest, or tax sale reimbursement expenses with respect to the eligible property for the applicable assessment date. Provides that, to the extent the qualified taxpayer has paid any property taxes, penalties, or interest with respect to the eligible property for an applicable assessment date, the qualified taxpayer is entitled to a refund of the amounts paid.

Requires an adult oriented website operator that displays material harmful to minors to use a reasonable age verification method to prevent a minor from accessing an adult oriented website. Creates a cause of action to permit: (1) the parent or guardian of a child harmed by a violation of the age verification requirement to obtain monetary damages, injunctive relief, and reasonable attorney's fees; and (2) any other person to bring an action to obtain injunctive relief and reasonable attorney's fees. Prohibits a person that conducts age verification from retaining the identifying information of an individual seeking to access an adult oriented website that displays material harmful to minors, and permits an individual whose identifying information is retained to bring an action to obtain monetary damages, injunctive relief, and reasonable attorney's fees. Requires adult oriented website operators to use commercially reasonable methods to secure all information collected and transmitted. Provides that the attorney general may bring an action to obtain an injunction, a civil penalty of not more than $250,000, or the attorney general's reasonable costs in investigating and maintaining the action. Provides that when the attorney general has reasonable cause to believe that any person has engaged in, is engaging in, or is about to engage in a violation, the attorney general is empowered to issue civil investigative demands under IC 4-6-3-3 to investigate the suspected violation. Requires verification information of minors to be kept confidential with certain exceptions. Adds verification information to the definition of "personal information". Adds a violation of IC 24-4-23 as a deceptive act.

Amends the duties of an attendance officer and the state attendance officer. Requires, not later than November 1 of each year, the state attendance officer to submit a report to the legislative council containing recommended legislation based on the state attendance officer's discussions with attendance officers. Requires each governing authority of a school corporation and charter school to establish a truancy prevention policy regarding certain students in kindergarten through grade 6. Provides that a prosecuting attorney shall notify each parent of a child when an affidavit is filed regarding the child's compulsory attendance violations or if the child is a habitual truant.

Provides that a state of disaster emergency declared by the governor: (1) that applies to the entire state may not continue for more than 60 days unless a renewal is authorized by the general assembly; and (2) that only applies to part of the state may not continue for more than 30 days unless renewed by the governor. Provides that the renewal of a statewide disaster emergency authorized by the general assembly may continue for not more than 60 days. Specifies that if a state of disaster emergency that applies to the entire state has ended, the governor may not call a new state of disaster emergency that applies to the entire state unless the new disaster is wholly unrelated to the earlier disaster. Defines "wholly unrelated".

Requires the Indiana economic development corporation to annually report to the general assembly regarding funds dedicated to supporting child care under specified state and federal programs. Defines an "out-of-school-time program". Requires the office of the secretary of family and social services (FSSA) to publish on the FSSA website a dashboard providing monthly information regarding state and federal child care subsidies available to Indiana residents. Provides that a household is eligible to begin receiving assistance under the federal Child Care and Development Fund (CCDF) voucher program if the household, at the time of FSSA's initial determination of the household's income eligibility: (1) has a household income that does not exceed 85% of Indiana's state median income for the household's family size; (2) includes an individual who is employed by a licensed child care center, a licensed child care home, or a licensed or registered child care ministry; and (3) otherwise meets federal eligibility requirements for the CCDF program. Provides, with respect to the individual with certification in cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) required to be present at all times when a child is in the care of a child care provider that is eligible to receive reimbursement through the CCDF program, that the individual is not required to be recertified in CPR annually. Provides that: (1) the early learning advisory committee must commission a third party evaluation to assess existing regulations for child care providers not later than May 1, 2024 (rather than July 1, 2024, under current law); and (2) FSSA must initiate the process of amending FSSA's rules in consideration of the findings of the third party evaluation not later than July 1, 2024. Requires, not later than September 30, 2024, the early learning advisory committee to: (1) complete a study regarding compensation in Indiana for early childhood educators and caregivers at out-of-school-time programs; (2) create an online dashboard to allow access to compensation data; and (3) issue a report containing the committee's findings and recommendations. Amends provisions regarding the On My Way Pre-K voucher program (program) to: (1) provide eligibility for children of child care employees; and (2) amend references to funds provided to children under the program as prekindergarten vouchers, rather than grants. Requires FSSA to establish a micro facility pilot program, under which FSSA shall: (1) develop a regulatory model that: (A) is applicable only to certain licensed or registered child care providers that provide child care for not less than three children and not more than 30 children for at least four hours per day (micro facilities); and (B) incorporates waivers or variances from FSSA's rules applicable to certain child care providers; (2) apply the regulatory model to at least three micro facilities and evaluate the operation of the micro facilities under the regulatory model; and (3) not later than October 1, 2026: (A) make a determination as to whether FSSA will adopt rules specific to micro facilities that incorporate some or all aspects of the regulatory model; and (B) submit to the general assembly a report regarding the pilot program. Requires FSSA to do the following: (1) Amend FSSA's rules to define a "substitute educator" caregiver type for purposes of FSSA's rules pertaining to all categories of child care providers regulated by FSSA. (2) Amend FSSA's rules to allow an employee of a child care provider who: (A) is 16 or 17 years of age; (B) is assigned to a lead caregiver who supervises the employee at all times during which the employee is supervising a child; (C) is never left alone with a child; and (D) meets specified qualifications; to be counted in child/staff ratios for school age child care rooms. (3) Amend FSSA's rules to allow an employee of a child care provider who: (A) is at least 18 years of age; and (B) meets specified qualifications; to serve as the staff person in charge of an infant/toddler room. (4) Issue a report to the general assembly not later than October 31, 2024, documenting the results attributable to: (A) the employer sponsored child care fund; and (B) the employer child care expenditure credit. (5) Study, in collaboration with other specified state agencies, opportunities for resource sharing across state agencies and local units of government to facilitate the fingerprinting of individuals for purposes of conducting national criminal history background checks and issue a report to the governor and the general assembly regarding the results of the study. Makes technical corrections.

Defines "fabricated media" as any of the following: (1) An audio or visual recording of an individual's speech, appearance, or conduct that has been altered without the individual's consent such that: (A) the media conveys a materially inaccurate depiction of the individual's speech, appearance, or conduct as recorded in the unaltered recording; and (B) a reasonable person would be unable to recognize that the recording has been altered. (2) An artificially generated audio or visual imitation of an individual that: (A) has been created without the individual's consent; (B) is sufficiently lifelike that a reasonable person would be unable to distinguish the speech or appearance of the imitation from the speech or appearance of the individual; and (C) is used to convey a fictional depiction of the individual's speech, appearance, or conduct. (3) Audio or visual media depicting the speech, appearance, or conduct of an artificially generated person, the appearance or speech of which is not a recognizable imitation of an identifiable individual. Requires certain election campaign communications that contain fabricated media to include a disclaimer. Allows a candidate depicted in fabricated media that does not include a required disclaimer to bring a civil action against specified persons.