The act recreates a provision that authorizes the state to retain the percentage of reimbursement that is in excess of the 50% federal match received for certain medicaid services provided (enhanced federal financial participation) during the COVID-19 pandemic. The provision is repealed once the reconciliation of all reimbursements and payments for services delivered during the period of enhanced federal financial participation has been completed.(Note: This summary applies to this bill as enacted.)
This Senate Resolution officially designates April 2026 as National Donate Life Month in Colorado. The measure serves to raise public awareness about organ, eye, and tissue donation and honors the individuals who contribute to transplant programs. Additionally, the Senate will send a copy of this resolution to the Donor Alliance to support their outreach efforts.
Under current law, if a defendant is found incompetent to proceed and the defendant will not be restored to competency in the foreseeable future, the court is required to dismiss charges against the defendant and the defendant, in limited circumstances, may be referred for certification for short-term treatment through a civil court process. The act maintains the requirement for the court to dismiss the charges against a defendant if the defendant's highest charged offense is among certain misdemeanor offenses, and the act maintains certification for short-term treatment as an option for the defendant. However, if the defendant is unrestorable or the defendant has reached the statutory maximum time permitted to be restored, the act authorizes the district attorney or county attorney (prosecution) to notify the court that the prosecution seeks civil commitment or an enhanced protective placement of a defendant if the prosecution can prove by clear and convincing evidence that the defendant:Has a mental disability or developmental disability;Committed an act that, in the absence of any mental disability or developmental disability, would constitute homicide, a crime of violence, or a felony that constitutes unlawful sexual behavior, and the act is or was charged in a criminal case in Colorado in which competency was raised; and Poses a substantial risk of serious harm to others. If the prosecution seeks civil commitment or an enhanced protective placement, the court is required to stay the order dismissing the defendant's case, set a trial within 91 days after the date the written notice was filed, and order the department of human services (CDHS) to identify an appropriate provider and placement for the defendant in the event a civil commitment or enhanced protective placement is granted. The defendant may stipulate that the court order a civil commitment or enhanced protective placement. If the court finds the prosecution has not met its burden, the court is required to deny the prosecution's request to civilly commit the defendant or order an enhanced protective placement of the defendant; except that the court may consider whether to order other civil proceedings. If the court finds the prosecution has met its burden, the court is required to order the civil commitment or enhanced protective placement of the defendant, place the defendant and issue any related orders, transfer jurisdiction of the civil commitment or enhanced protective placement to an appropriate civil court with jurisdiction, and dismiss the defendant's criminal case. When the court orders the civil commitment or enhanced protective placement, the court shall make a finding of the defendant's primary diagnosis that constitutes the mental disability or developmental disability. The court shall order the defendant civilly committed to the legal custody of CDHS unless the defendant's primary diagnosis is an intellectual and developmental disability (IDD) or a neurocognitive disorder, in which case, the court shall order an enhanced protective placement and legal custody of the defendant to the department of health care policy and financing (HCPF). If CDHS proposes placing the defendant into inpatient care, the court shall order, without further court review, that the defendant be placed into inpatient care at the discretion of CDHS if the court ordered a civil commitment or that the defendant be placed into inpatient care at the discretion of HCPF if the court ordered an enhanced protective placement. If CDHS has not identified an appropriate provider that is willing to accept placement of the defendant, the court shall set a review hearing within 35 days after the order for civil commitment or enhanced protective placement and order CDHS, in consultation with the behavioral health administration (BHA), to identify at least one appropriate provider. Upon receiving jurisdiction of a civil commitment or enhanced protective placement, the act requires the civil court to supervise the civil commitment or enhanced protective placement by notifying the county attorney, appointing an attorney to represent the respondent, and setting a review hearing. At the hearing, the respondent has the right to request modification of the terms of the civil commitment or enhanced protective placement and the right to periodic review, including whether the respondent qualifies for termination of the civil commitment or enhanced protective placement. The court is required to ensure the respondent is placed in the least-restrictive setting adequate to protect the victims and community. If the respondent is not placed into inpatient care at the discretion of CDHS, or if CDHS proposes to move the respondent into or out of inpatient care, the court shall, prior to modifying the civil commitment or enhanced protective placement to change the respondent's provider or placement, review the appropriateness of the proposed provider or placement. The provider charged with the physical care and custody of the respondent is required to submit a report to the court and the parties annually by the date the respondent was civilly committed or ordered into enhanced protective placement unless a substantially similar examination was ordered by the court within the previous 12 months. The act requires the court to terminate the respondent's civil commitment or enhanced protective placement if the respondent no longer poses a substantial risk of serious harm to others or the respondent does not have the applicable disorder or disability that is likely to cause the respondent to be a danger to the respondent's self or a danger to others and the respondent has demonstrated sufficient capacity and willingness to conform their conduct to the requirements of the law. If the respondent does not meet the criteria for termination, the respondent is not entitled to another termination trial within one year after the conclusion of the previous trial. The court shall convert a civil commitment to an enhanced protective placement if the respondent does not meet the criteria for termination but the respondent has a mental health disorder that is an IDD or a neurocognitive disorder, without having any other mental health disorder that is not an IDD or a neurocognitive disorder and that substantially contributes to whether the respondent is a danger to the respondent's self or a danger to others, or is gravely disabled. If the defendant does not meet the criteria for termination and has co-occurring mental health disorders that include an IDD or a neurocognitive disorder, the court may, upon the recommendation of CDHS, convert the civil commitment to an enhanced protective placement. The court shall convert an enhanced protective placement to a civil commitment if the respondent does not meet the criteria for termination and the respondent no longer has an IDD or a neurocognitive disorder that substantially contributes to whether the respondent is a danger to the respondent's self or a danger to others, or is gravely disabled. If the defendant does not meet the criteria for termination and has co-occurring mental health disorders that do not include an IDD or a neurocognitive disorder, the court may, upon the recommendation of CDHS, convert the enhanced protective placement to a civil commitment. Under current law, an emergency mental health hold (M1 hold) may be initiated against a person for not more than 72 hours if the person appears to have a mental health disorder and, as a result of the mental health disorder, appears to be a danger to the person's self or others, or appears to be gravely disabled. A person detained for an M1 hold and transported to an emergency medical services facility or facility designated by the commissioner (facility) of the BHA is required to receive an evaluation as soon as possible after the person presents to the facility. The act authorizes a person who has an M1 hold initiated against them while in confinement to receive an evaluation at the person's place of confinement rather than being transported to a facility. If the person is released from confinement while under an M1 hold, the person responsible for the confinement is required to coordinate with the BHA to transfer the person to a facility. Under current law, if a person under an M1 hold meets the criteria for certification for short-term treatment, the person may be certified for not more than 3 months. Rather than requiring an M1 hold as a prerequisite to short-term certification or certification for long-term care and treatment, the act authorizes a person to be certified if the person:Has been advised of the availability of, but has not accepted, voluntary treatment or with consideration of all reasonably available information, is believed will not remain in voluntary treatment; and By clear and convincing evidence, has a mental health disorder and, as a result of the mental health disorder, the person is a danger to the person's self, a danger to others, or gravely disabled. A person may not be certified for short-term treatment or long-term care and treatment if the person has an IDD or neurocognitive disorder without any other mental health disorder that is not an IDD or neurocognitive disorder and that substantially contributes to whether the respondent is a danger to the respondent's self or a danger to others, or is gravely disabled. If a respondent is certified, the court shall order CDHS to provide care coordination and make diligent efforts to find a provider for the respondent that is willing to hold the certification. The respondent may be certified for long-term care and treatment if the respondent continues to meet the criteria and standards for certification for short-term treatment. The certification terminates when the professional person in charge of the respondent's treatment and the BHA determine the respondent no longer meets the criteria for certification. To terminate a short-term treatment certification less than 30 days after the initial certification, two professional persons are required to individually consult and review the respondent's case and agree that the respondent no longer meets the criteria for certification. A court may order the short-term or long-term protective placement of a person:Who, by clear and convincing evidence, has a neurocognitive disorder;When reasonable grounds exist to believe that the person will not remain in a voluntary treatment program; andWho, by clear and convincing evidence, is a danger to the person's self, a danger to others. The act aligns the provisions for short-term and long-term protective placement with certifications for short-term treatment and long-term care and treatment. No later than October 1, 2027, the act requires CDHS to construct and operate an outpatient treatment facility for adults with behavioral health needs, including adults who are found incompetent to proceed and unlikely to be restored to competency. To implement the act, for the 2025-26 state fiscal year, the act appropriates to CDHS $535,934 from the general fund and $4,777,898 from the capital construction fund. To implement the act, the act makes the following appropriations for state fiscal year 2026-27:$17,802,360 to CDHS from the general fund, of which $242,323 is reappropriated to the department of law and $52,644 to the office of information technology;To the judicial department, $26,296 from the judicial department information technology cash fund and $5,401,437 from the general fund, of which $1,719,409 is for use by the office of state public defender and specified independent agencies;$842,808 to HCPF from the general fund; and$150,000 to the department of law from the general fund.(Note: This summary applies to this bill as enacted.)
The act establishes the ibogaine research pilot program (pilot program) in the behavioral health administration (BHA) to research the safety and effectiveness of using ibogaine to treat mental health conditions and substance use disorders. The act requires the BHA to establish a committee to review pilot program site applications and make recommendations to the BHA on which applicants to accept. The BHA may select up to 5 ibogaine pilot sites. The act allows the BHA to seek, accept, and expend gifts, grants, and donations and establishes the ibogaine research pilot program cash fund. The pilot program is contingent on the BHA receiving sufficient gifts, grants, and donations to administer the pilot program and award grants to the selected ibogaine pilot sites to help with financing needs. Under current law, the division of natural medicine advisory board consists of 15 voting members, 8 of whom must have general expertise and experience related to natural medicine and 7 of whom must have specialized expertise and experience in various areas of natural medicine. The act amends the expertise and experience requirements to apply equally to all 15 voting members. The act adds that a facilitator of natural medicine services is not liable for a physical or psychological injury that a participant may experience as a result of the facilitator's performance or supervision of the natural medicine services that a participant receives, unless the injury is the result of the facilitator's intentional misconduct, gross negligence, or a deviation from the recognized standard of care. The act authorizes the state licensing authority for natural medicine or natural medicine product (state licensing authority) to adopt rules related to the administration, manufacturing, and use of ibogaine. The act sets requirements for how the state licensing authority must prioritize reviewing applications for licensure to facilitate natural medicine services and allows the state licensing authority to set different licensing fees depending on the type of natural medicine the applicant is seeking licensure for. The act allows the state licensing authority to accept gifts, grants, and donations from public or private sources and requires gifts, grants, or donations received to be deposited in the regulated natural medicine division cash fund. The act requires the BHA to work to secure federal research and development funding available through the advanced research projects agency for health within the federal department of health and human services, or other available funding, in order to advance research on the use of ibogaine for the treatment of serious mental illness. The act updates the powers and duties of the director of the division of professions and occupations to include adopting rules that guide the use and administration of ibogaine. A licensee seeking to cultivate, manufacture, dispense, or administer ibogaine shall, in consultation with Indigenous communities, establish a benefit-sharing plan that directly benefits those Indigenous communities. The act:Updates definition of 'administration session' to include the use of regulated natural medicine and regulated natural medicine product that the participant purchases to consume during the administration session;Prohibits a person from advertising bona fide harm reduction services or bona fide support services offered for remuneration, advertising natural medicine or natural medicine products, or using harm reduction services or support services to conduct sales of natural medicine;Clarifies that the state licensing authority is not required to conduct routine, periodic, or pre-operational inspections as a condition of licensure unless expressly required;Requires state licensing authority to adopt rules regarding licensing privileges and restrictions of a limited regulated natural medicine sales license and eligibility requirements for an applicant to obtain a limited regulated natural medicine sales license;Allows the state licensing authority to adopt rules regarding the application procedures and license requirement for a healing center to operate a temporary premises; and requirements for cultivation, manufacture, testing, or dispensing of ibogaine;Allows the department of public health and environment to issue a temporary premises permit to a licensed natural medicine healing center if certain conditions are met and allows a healing center to apply for a temporary premises permit;Prohibits a healing center licensee from selling regulated natural medicine or regulated natural medicine product unless a co-located limited regulated natural medicine sales licensee conducts the transaction in accordance with certain requirements; andAllows the director of the natural medicine division to issue an order to cease and desist if the director determines that a person is acting or has acted without a license to operate a natural medicine business or to own, grow, harvest, transfer, manufacture, supervise, provide, or administer natural medicine.(Note: This summary applies to this bill as enacted.)
The bill states that the Colorado prescription drug affordability review board has no authority to perform an affordability review of, or to establish an upper payment limit for, a prescription drug that is:Designated as a drug for a rare disease or condition by the food and drug administration (FDA) of the federal department of health and human services; orA licensed biological product that is derived from human whole blood or plasma as indicated on product labeling approved by the FDA.(Note: This summary applies to the reengrossed version of this bill as introduced in the second house.)
Section 2 of the act repeals a requirement that health-care profession regulators adopt rules that require each licensed health-care provider, as a condition of renewing, reactivating, or reinstating a license, to complete up to 4 credit hours of training per licensing cycle in order to demonstrate competency regarding topics related to prescribing drugs and treatment. Section 3 authorizes the Colorado dental board to adopt rules that require every dentist, dental therapist, and dental hygienist, as a condition of renewing, reactivating, or reinstating a license, to complete up to 4 credit hours of training per licensing cycle regarding topics related to prescribing drugs and treatment. Section 4 requires a licensed veterinarian to complete at least 1 hour of training per renewal period regarding topics related to prescribing drugs and treatment. Section 5 changes the frequency at which specific health-care facilities are required to apply for a license issued by the department of public health and environment from annually to every 2 years. Under current law, a health-care facility is required to screen each uninsured patient for eligibility for public health insurance programs and discounted care (screening) utilizing a single uniform application developed by the department of health care policy and financing (state department). Sections 6 through 11 change this requirement by:Changing the method used to conduct the screening from a uniform application to use of a third-party resource, such as a major credit bureau, or use of a uniform screening questionnaire (questionnaire) developed by the state department;Allowing a health-care facility the option of screening a patient for eligibility for the health-care facility's financial assistance program;Requiring a health-care facility to provide specified notifications upon completion of the screening;Creating an application for discounted care (application) for use by a health-care facility upon completion of the screening through which additional information is requested from a patient to determine whether the patient qualifies or is likely to qualify for public health-care coverage or discounted care;Requiring a health-care facility to provide specified notice and appeal rights to a patient upon completion and review of the application; andRequiring the state department to adopt rules regarding the questionnaire and application. Section 11 also narrows state department review requirements of health-care facilities' and licensed health-care professionals' billing for patients who are indigent. The act prohibits the state department from making changes to regulatory documents or imposing new requirements unless the changes or new requirements are adopted by rule by specified dates and are subject to stakeholder engagement. Section 12 requires the state department to establish by rule the content and format of the information each hospital must provide to the state department for a hospital transparency report at least 30 days prior to the hospital's fiscal year. The act changes the deadline for a hospital to submit to the state department an annual audited financial statement from 120 days to 150 days after the end of the hospital's fiscal year. Current law requires that each hospital has a minimum of 15 days to review the hospital transparency report; the act specifies that the review period is 15 business days and requires that a statewide hospital association must also have a minimum of 15 business days to review the report.(Note: This summary applies to this bill as enacted.)
If certain conditions are met, the act requires health benefit plans that provide hospital, surgical, or medical expense insurance to provide reimbursement for health-care services provided by a pharmacist that are within the pharmacist's scope of practice without entering into a collaborative pharmacy practice agreement. Similarly, under the medical assistance program (medicaid), the act authorizes reimbursement for services that are within a pharmacist's scope of practice and not duplicative of other pharmacist services or programs reimbursed by medicaid. Further, solely on the basis of the type of license or certification, a health benefit plan or health insurance company (carrier) shall not discriminate against a pharmacist who is acting within the scope of the pharmacist's license or certification under state law, with respect to participation, referral, reimbursement of covered services, or indemnification, or prohibit a pharmacist from membership in a provider network; except that, in selecting pharmacist providers, the act does not:Prohibit a health benefit plan or carrier from including providers in its provider network only to the extent necessary to meet the needs of the plan or from limiting referrals or establishing quality control measures;Require a health benefit plan or carrier to contract with any provider willing to abide by the terms and conditions for participation established by the health benefit plan or carrier; orRequire coverage for any health-care service that is not otherwise covered. The act makes changes to the definitions in the pharmacy practice statutes to include a definition for 'final product verification'. For drug, device, or product orders that are not for controlled substances, final product verification may be delegated by a supervising pharmacist to a certified pharmacy technician or pharmacy intern. A pharmacy or other outlet shall have a continuous quality assessment system in place to periodically verify the accuracy of the final drug, device, or product and must create a plan for final product verification, including how pharmacists' hours will be maintained to provide direct patient care. The state board of pharmacy is required to adopt rules relating to final product verification no later than December 31, 2026. Under current law, a pharmacist may administer certain tests to patients who are 12 years old or older for certain conditions and prescribe drugs to treat the tested conditions. The act adds to the definition of the 'practice of pharmacy' independent prescriptive authority for drugs that are not controlled substances, drug categories, or devices that are prescribed to patients who are 5 years old or older but under 12 years old for conditions that do not require a new diagnosis, that are minor and self-limiting, or that have a test that guides diagnosis and are not medications that may only be prescribed pursuant to a certified education program and a limited distribution network. If a pharmacist tests or treats any patient who is under 18 years old, the act requires a pharmacist to notify the patient's primary care provider consistent with health-care privacy laws or, if the patient does not have or disclose a primary care provider, refer the patient to a primary care provider for further care.(Note: This summary applies to this bill as enacted.)
The act requires the nonemergency medical transportation broker (broker) to establish the transportation community advisory board (TCAB) and requires the state department of health care policy and financing (state department) to collaborate with the TCAB prior to establishing rules and processes for the safety and oversight of nonmedical transportation services and nonemergency medical transportation (NEMT) services. The act requires, in collaboration with the TCAB, certain rules for NEMT the state department must adopt. The state department may impose trip caps or market-share restrictions on a transportation provider (provider) as part of corrective action plan. The act requires providers to use vehicles equipped with 2-way video cameras and a video recording system when transporting members. The act establishes how the broker must roll out their implementation and requires the broker to provide all providers with software, a communication toolkit, training, and technical assistance to facilitate NEMT services. The broker may encourage medicaid members (members) to book transportation services at least 2 days before their requested transportation date, and the broker shall accept and make reasonable efforts to fulfill same-day and next-day transportation requests. The act requires providers, only after all service regions have been implemented, to accommodate member requests for preferred or alternate drivers when operationally feasible. The act requires the broker, and, if there is no broker, the providers to verify that individuals using the transportation services are eligible members during the scheduling of transportation services. The act prohibits the broker from operating, owning, or controlling a provider in Colorado. The act requires the broker to provide their trip assignment rules and procedures to the state department for approval and for publication on the state department's website. The act allows a transportation network company to provide NEMT services when a provider is unavailable. The state department shall ensure all transportation providers, drivers, and vehicles are credentialed, and services provided by noncredentialed drivers or in noncredentialed vehicles are not eligible for reimbursement. The act prohibits the state department from denying payment of services to providers if the provider provides scheduled transportation services in good faith based on the information provided by the broker or if the provider had no knowledge of an inaccuracy and the provider followed all applicable rules and procedures. Subject to available appropriations, the act requires the state department to audit providers and audit the broker annually. The act requires the state department to categorize all NEMT expenditures as medical services and make changes to the NEMT program as necessary to obtain medical services federal match rates for NEMT services. The act also eliminates the requirement that the state department provide transportation services as an administrative cost. The act reduces appropriations to the state department from the general fund by $76,639 and from the healthcare affordability and sustainability hospital provider fee cash fund by $20,941,853.(Note: This summary applies to this bill as enacted.)
The act requires an institution of higher education (institution) that operates a student health center to provide abortion medication to all students enrolled at the institution. The act requires an institution that has an on-site prescription drug outlet or other outlet to maintain a stock of and provide access to abortion medication to students enrolled at the institution. The act requires an institution that does not have an on-site prescription drug outlet or other outlet to either submit a prescription for abortion medication to an off-campus prescription drug outlet or other outlet or dispense abortion medication through the institution's student health center if permitted by the student health center's licensure. The act prohibits an institution from knowingly providing personally identifiable information contained in a student's patient records, billing records, or precise location data related to accessing abortion medication in response to a request from another state seeking to impose liability for accessing abortion medication. An institution is not required to provide access to or stock abortion medication if doing so would jeopardize an institution's federal grant participation, require the institution to deviate from generally accepted billing practices, modify the generally accepted standards of medical practice, or conflict with the institution's sincerely held religious beliefs or practices.(Note: This summary applies to this bill as enacted.)
The bill creates the large employer health-care support enterprise (enterprise) to impose, assess, and collect the large employer health-care support fee (enterprise fee) in the amount of $2,300 for each supported worker for the calendar year in an amount determined by the enterprise board (enterprise board) that reflects the costs of the services provided by the enterprise . A worker who is receiving medical assistance benefits under the state medical assistance program, except for a worker eligible for medical assistance benefits based on disability, is a supported worker (supported worker). An employer is subject to the enterprise fee if the employer is a large employer, which is defined in the bill as an employer that has 500 or more supported workers (large employer). An employer is exempted from paying the enterprise fee if the employer:Provides affordable health coverage to all workers working 20 or more hours per week or 80 or more hours per month;Is a franchisee of the employer;Is a nonprofit employer;Is a public employer; orHas a collective bargaining agreement with its employees that includes health-care coverage. The business purpose s of the enterprise are to use enterprise fee revenue to help large employers retain supported workers who are not provided employer-sponsored affordable health coverage by using enterprise fee revenue to:Help finance the costs for medical assistance benefits for large employers' supported workers ; and Provide reimbursement grants to large employers for some or all of an employer's costs incurred for allowing a worker to buy into an employer-sponsored health benefit plan, should the employer choose to participate in the worker buy-in program created in the bill.This These business service s reduce s lost productivity due to worker illness and training costs to replace workers who may otherwise seek employment that provides affordable health coverage. Starting with a review of the 2027 calendar year, the department of health care policy and financing (HCPF) every employer that employed 500 or more workers in the state shall prepare an annual employer report on or before January 31, 2028, and on or before the same date each year thereafter, that includes information about the employer's employees, including the employee's name, date of birth, hours worked, and dates of employment for the preceding calendar year. An employer may seek an exemption from the requirement to file the annual employer report by demonstrating that it provides affordable health coverage to all workers working 20 or more hours per week or 80 or more hours per month. Upon receipt of the annual employer report, the enterprise shall determine whether an employer is a large employer and shall issue a report by March of the following same calendar year that identifies large employers by their number of supported workers for the preceding calendar year and impose the enterprise fee on each large employer . An employer may contest the employer's identification as a large employer. Once identified, a large employer shall either pay the enterprise fee for each of the large employer's supported workers or demonstrate that it provides will offer affordable health coverage to all workers working 20 or more hours per week or 80 or more hours per month. The enterprise may adjust the amount of the enterprise fee to reflect the cost of the services, for inflation, or for other reasons. A large employer commits a petty offense and is subject to a civil penalty for The enterprise shall contract with the department of revenue to collect and enforce the payment of the enterprise fee on behalf of the enterprise, including the failure to provide information necessary to calculate the enterprise fee or to either timely pay the enterprise fee or demonstrate that the large employer offers affordable health coverage as specified in the bill. The department of revenue may collect interest and penalties and institute collection actions on behalf of the enterprise. Enterprise revenue is used to support the pay for payment of medical assistance benefits for working-age adults under the state medical assistance program, and to increase reimbursement rates for ensure access to health-care providers providing medical assistance program services, to ensure worker access to medical services and to pay for large employer reimbursement grants under the worker buy-in program for large employers that pay the enterprise fee. The enterprise is governed by the enterprise board, and the enterprise board shall report annually to the general assembly on the enterprise revenue and the enterprise's use of the enterprise revenue in support of large employers. If the enterprise determines that the enterprise to would receive more than $100 million dollars in its first 5 fiscal years, the state treasurer shall credit the additional fee revenue to the large employer fee cash fund created in the state treasury for administration by HCPF, and that fee revenue is subject to the state fiscal year spending limit imposed by section 20 of article X of the state constitution and the excess revenues cap. The money in the large employer fee cash fund shall be used by HCPF to pay for costs for medical assistance benefits to support large employers' supported workers enterprise shall reduce the amount of the enterprise fee.(Note: Italicized words indicate new material added to the original summary; dashes through words indicate deletions from the original summary.)(Note: This summary applies to the reengrossed version of this bill as introduced in the second house.)
