The act implements and describes the operation of the pediatric primary care practice program (primary care program) in the department of early childhood (department). The purpose of the primary care program is to provide funding and support to a pediatric primary care medical practice (medical practice) to integrate into the medical practice a professional who specializes in whole-child and whole-family health and well-being. The department shall contract with an implementation partner (primary care partner) to implement, operate, and administer the primary care program. The primary care partner shall create and implement a team-based, research-informed pediatric primary care practice evidence-based model (evidence-based model). The evidence-based model must be a comprehensive approach to guide pediatric care medical practices to deliver services to children from birth to 3 years of age and their families. The primary care partner shall: Establish an application and selection process with the department for select medical practices to participate in the primary care program; Review applications from medical practices and select applicants to participate in the primary care program; Work with selected applicants to complete assessments on the applicants' community health-care systems, health and well-being practices, and related concerns; and Train and support the medical practices selected to participate in the primary care program to maintain fidelity to the evidence-based model. The executive director of the department may adopt rules to carry out the purposes of the primary care program. (Note: This summary applies to this bill as enacted.)
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The act requires a metropolitan district that is a party to a lease or rental agreement that was effective as of January 1, 2025, or later and was filed with the county assessor's office in support of a claim for a property tax exemption based on the use of the property for purposes of the metropolitan district to file with the county assessor's office a statement (statement) describing: The metropolitan district's use of the leased property; The metropolitan district's authority to use the leased property for the metropolitan district's purposes; Any use of the leased property by a private person for private purposes; and Any disclosure filed by a member of the board of directors of the metropolitan district in accordance with certain laws that govern disclosures of conflicts of interest. If the statement includes a disclosure that relates to the leased property and is filed by a member of the board of directors of the metropolitan district in accordance with certain laws that govern disclosures of conflicts of interest, the county assessor shall, within 14 days of receipt of the statement, submit the statement to the metropolitan district's governing body. Within 63 days of receipt of the statement, the governing body shall issue a written decision including findings of fact and a conclusion as to whether the leased property is used for a public purpose. If the governing body concludes that the leased property is not used for a public purpose, the leased property is not exempt from taxation, and the county assessor shall implement the governing body's decision. The decision of the governing body is not subject to appeal and does not give rise to any private right of action. The act clarifies that a leasehold interest in real or personal property that is owned by a private person and that has been leased to the state or a political subdivision of the state, the use and possession of which has been leased back to a private person for private purposes, is taxable to the owner. (Note: This summary applies to this bill as enacted.)
The act creates a civil cause of action for a peace officer if the peace officer reports or discloses conduct that is in violation of, or the peace officer reasonably believes is in violation of, any law or policy and the report or disclosure is a contributing factor in the employer of the peace officer's decision to take adverse employment action against the peace officer. A peace officer may seek the following damages: Reinstatement; Back pay with interest; Any other equitable relief the court deems appropriate; Compensatory damages for other pecuniary losses, emotional pain and suffering, inconvenience, mental anguish, loss of enjoyment of life, and other nonpecuniary losses; and Reasonable attorney fees and costs. The act creates an affirmative defense to the action if the peace officer's employer would have taken the action that forms the basis of the suit against the peace officer based on a legitimate nonretaliatory basis. The action is not subject to the "Colorado Governmental Immunity Act". The statute of limitations to bring the action is 2 years. The act does not apply to an employee who provides false information or who does not follow internal reporting and administrative procedures related to whistleblower conduct. All law enforcement agencies shall provide a training to employees or a workplace posting, or both, regarding the requirements of the act. (Note: This summary applies to this bill as enacted.)
The act modifies current law regarding the process by which a policyholder may request a certified copy of their insurance policy (policy) from a homeowners insurance carrier (carrier) and the carrier's duty to comply. The act clarifies that such a request must be in written form and received by the carrier's registered agent (agent) and that the carrier's window of time to make the policy available begins when the agent receives the request. The act also imposes a penalty against a carrier that fails to comply with a policyholder's request for a certified copy of their policy in the amount of $50 per day and authorizes the award of attorney fees and costs for a policyholder's enforcement of the requirement. (Note: This summary applies to this bill as enacted.)
The act amends and makes additions to existing law concerning security deposits that tenants submit to landlords and the conditions under which a landlord may retain all or part of a security deposit. For the purposes of security deposits, the act expands the definition of "normal wear and tear". Under current law, a landlord may not retain a security deposit to cover normal wear and tear and, if actual cause exists for retaining any portion of a security deposit, the landlord must provide the tenant: A written statement listing the exact reasons for the retention (written statement); and The difference between any sum deposited and the amount retained. The act states that a landlord may not retain a security deposit to cover any damage or defective condition that preexisted the tenancy and, if the landlord delivers the written statement within fourteen days after a written request by the tenant, the landlord must also deliver any relevant documentation in the landlord's possession or control. Upon a landlord's or tenant's request, if reasonable and practicable, the act requires a landlord and tenant to conduct a walk-through inspection, either in person or via a telecommunication-assisted interactive walk-through, of the dwelling unit to identify in writing any damage or defective conditions that are beyond normal wear and tear and that did not preexist the tenancy. The landlord must provide a walk-through inspection at a time that is mutually convenient to the parties, before the termination of the lease or the surrender of the premises, and after the tenant has had the opportunity to remove furniture. A landlord wrongfully withholds a security deposit or any portion of it if the landlord: Fails to timely provide the written statement and any required documentation; Provides a written statement that fails to list the exact reasons for retaining any portion of the security deposit; Fails to timely return the difference between any sum deposited and the amount retained; or Retains a security deposit or any portion of it in bad faith. A landlord retains a security deposit or any portion of it in bad faith if the amount retained: Unreasonably exceeds the amount of actual damages; Is retained without actual cause; Is an amount the landlord knew or should have known exceeded the actual damages; or Is retained solely or in part for an unlawful, retaliatory, or discriminatory purpose. A landlord is presumed to have retained an unreasonable amount of a security deposit if the amount retained is 125% or greater than the amount of the actual damages. In any court action brought by a tenant under the act, the landlord bears the burden of proving the amount of actual damages the landlord incurred. Under current law, upon cessation of a landlord's interest in a dwelling unit, the person in possession of a tenant's security deposit must either transfer the security deposit to the landlord's successor in interest or return the security deposit to the tenant within a reasonable time. The act states that this must be done within 60 days after cessation of the landlord's interest in the dwelling unit. If a landlord's payment refunding a tenant's security deposit or any portion of it is returned to the landlord, the landlord must hold the payment for at least one year after receiving it and must disburse the payment to the tenant within 15 calendar days upon the tenant's request. A landlord does not have actual cause to retain any amount from a security deposit for the replacement of carpet or painting unless there is substantial and irreparable damage to the carpet, or substantial damage to the paint, that exceeds normal wear and tear and did not preexist the tenancy. If a landlord has actual cause, the landlord may retain only the minimum amount necessary to replace the carpet or to repaint in the area that is damaged. A landlord may not deem carpet substantially and irreparably damaged if it has not been replaced with new carpet within the 10 years preceding the termination of the lease or surrender of the premises. The act takes effect January 1, 2026. (Note: This summary applies to this bill as enacted.)
The act requires a school district, a charter school, an institute charter school, a board of cooperative services, or the Colorado school for the deaf and the blind (local education provider) to satisfy certain requirements concerning installation, inspection, and maintenance of heating, ventilation, and air conditioning (HVAC) systems in schools if the local education provider undertakes HVAC infrastructure improvements using money from the "Infrastructure Investment and Jobs Act" cash fund. The requirements established in the act concern: Ventilation verification assessments, which include assessments of an HVAC system's filtration, ventilation exhaust, economizers, demand control ventilation, air distribution and building pressurization, general maintenance requirements, and operational controls ; The preparation of HVAC assessment reports; The review of HVAC assessment reports by mechanical engineers, who make recommendations regarding necessary repairs and improvements, suggest pathways to reduce emissions, and estimate associated costs; HVAC adjustments, repairs, upgrades, and replacements; and The preparation of HVAC verification reports, which must be maintained for at least 5 years and made available to the public upon request. The act establishes mandatory criteria that an HVAC contractor must satisfy in order to perform work described in the act. A local education provider that undertakes HVAC infrastructure improvements using money from the "Infrastructure Investment and Jobs Act" cash fund must do so using only contractors on the certified contractor list established by the department of labor and employment, unless the local education provider determines that there were no responsive, eligible subcontractors available to fulfill the mechanical, electrical, or plumbing portions of the contract. (Note: This summary applies to this bill as enacted.)
The act adjusts several tax expenditures and adds purpose statements to other tax expenditures as follows: Section 1 of the act disallows the income tax credit for unsalable alcohol after December 31, 2025, and repeals the credit on December 31, 2030; Section 2 extends the 10% of purchase price income tax credit for income tax years commencing before January 1, 2025, for a purchaser who installs an energy storage system in a residential dwelling to include subsequent income tax years commencing before January 1, 2027, and extends the repeal of the credit from January 1, 2028, to January 1, 2030. By amending a definition of "agricultural compounds" that is incorporated into the definition of "wholesale sale" used for purposes of the sales and use tax statutes, section 3 exempts from sales and use tax soil conditioners, plant amendments, plant growth regulators, mulches, compost, soil used for aboveground production of agricultural commodities, manure, fish for non-stocking purposes, fish embryos, and fish eggs beginning January 1, 2026; Section 4 states that the purpose of the insolvency assessments paid insurance premium tax credit is to offset the cost for an insurer paying required assessments into the life and health insurance protection association and that the credit's effectiveness is measured by how many eligible insurers claim the credit and the amount claimed relative to payments into the life and health insurance protection association; Sections 5 and 6 state that the purpose of the state refund income tax subtraction is to avoid re-taxing a taxpayer's state income tax refund when a state refund is required to be included as income on the taxpayer's federal return pursuant to the internal revenue code and that the effectiveness of the deduction is measured by the number of taxpayers claiming the deduction and the total amount of state refunds claimed as subtractions from Colorado taxable income; Section 7 states that the purpose of the dyed special fuels and off-road fuel tax excise tax exemption is to entirely exclude dyed diesel or kerosene from the special fuels excise tax where the dyed fuel is used for specified off-road purposes or by governmental entities and that the effectiveness of the exemption is measured by the number of taxpayers claiming the exemption and the amount of tax that would have been paid without the exemption; Section 8 states that the purpose of the off-road fuel use refund is to compensate taxpayers who buy and pay the tax on otherwise taxable fuels for the purpose of using the fuels for specified non-taxable purposes under federal law and that the effectiveness of the refund is measured by the number of taxpayers claiming a refund and the amount of tax that was already collected and is refunded; Section 9 states that the purpose of the wholesale sale exemption from sales tax is to ensure that sales tax is levied and collected only on a final end sale to a retail consumer and not on wholesale sales and that the effectiveness of the wholesale exemption from sales tax is measured by the number of taxpayers claiming the wholesale exemption from tax and the amount of tax liability not paid; Section 10 extends the availability of the biotechnology sales and use tax refund by 1 year to include calendar years beginning before January 1, 2027; and Section 11 clarifies that the temporary property tax valuation for assessment reduction for qualified-senior primary residence real property is available whether or not the state has sufficient excess revenues to pay for it. For the 2025-26 state fiscal year, $13,137 is appropriated from the general fund to the department of revenue for implementation of the act. (Note: This summary applies to this bill as enacted.)
The act amends the definition of a "portable tenant screening report" (screening report) to specify that a prospective tenant using a housing subsidy is not required to include a credit history report, a credit score, or an adverse credit event with the tenant's screening report. The act also repeals language allowing a landlord to require a tenant to make a screening report directly available to the landlord through a consumer reporting agency or third-party website. (Note: This summary applies to this bill as enacted.)
Starting January 1, 2027, the act prohibits an electrical employer or plumbing employer that employs an apprentice in the state (employer) from registering an apprentice with the employer's respective governing board (board) unless the apprentice is enrolled in an apprenticeship program training the apprentice for an occupation officially recognized by the United States department of labor as an electrical occupation for an electrical apprenticeship or a plumbing occupation for a plumbing apprenticeship. On or before July 1, 2027, if existing resources are available or if the department of regulatory agencies (DORA) receives sufficient gifts, grants, or donations, the act requires the state apprenticeship agency and DORA to establish data-sharing agreements and policies to enable the entities to determine if there are apprentices registered with a board who are enrolled to be trained for occupations other than electrical or plumbing occupations and who are therefore ineligible for registration with the board. If the board cannot verify that an apprentice is eligible to be registered as an apprentice within 60 days after notice of noncompliance, the board shall remove the apprentice's registration with the board, and the noncompliant apprentice shall not perform work as a plumbing or electrical apprentice in the state. (Note: This summary applies to this bill as enacted.)
The act creates the Colorado sexual assault forensic medical evidence review board (board), consisting of the attorney general, or their designee, as board chair; the executive director of the Colorado district attorneys' council, or their designee; and various members appointed by the attorney general or the governor. The board's duties include reviewing and monitoring processes related to sexual assault response, making recommendations to improve sexual assault response, and submitting an annual report concerning its duties. The act creates a notification requirement under the "Victim Rights Act" that requires a law enforcement agency to notify a victim every 90 days when the law enforcement agency has not received the results of the forensic medical evidence DNA analysis from an accredited crime laboratory. The act requires an accredited crime laboratory to endeavor to analyze forensic medical evidence within 60 days after its receipt. The act expands public reporting requirements concerning forensic medical evidence and DNA evidence backlogs. For the 2025-26 state fiscal year, the act appropriates $112,365 from the general fund to the department of law for use by the administration division to implement the act. (Note: This summary applies to this bill as enacted.)