The act changes requirements for the regional transportation district (RTD) relating to paratransit and accessible transportation, the composition of the board of directors, coordination with the subregional service councils, and reporting requirements. Paratransit and accessible transportation. On or before December 31, 2026, RTD is required to contract with an independent third-party entity for a comprehensive paratransit service study (study) that includes:A needs assessment of the population, needs, and service gaps for riders with disabilities in the district;A cost-benefit assessment;A definition of measurable performance metrics related to access, reliability, equity, and cost-effectiveness;An assessment of opportunities for RTD to collaborate with local and regional partners to address service gaps; Engagement with paratransit users, riders with disabilities, service providers, and other key stakeholders;An assessment of system performance; andAn assessment of barriers for paratransit riders and riders with disabilities to access a low-income fare discount. The study must be completed by June 30, 2027. On or before December 31, 2027, RTD is required to complete, adopt, and begin implementing an accessible transportation service plan that is informed by the study. Composition of RTD board of directors. The act ends the terms of the current 15 elected members of the RTD board of directors (board) on January 1, 2029, and replaces the board with 5 members elected from director districts and 4 at-large appointed members. 5 members constitute a quorum for the new board. Board members serve 4-year terms; except that the new member terms are staggered such that, on January 1, 2031, 4 of the 9 members' terms expire. At the November 2028 general election, 5 new members are elected, 2 of which are elected to 2-year terms. At every general election in an even-numbered year thereafter, the number of members to be elected at the election equals the number of member terms expiring on January 1 of the following year. On or before the day of the November 2028 general election, the governor shall appoint 4 new board members. On or before the day of the November general election in every even-numbered year thereafter, the governor shall appoint 2 new board members to replace the members whose terms will expire the following year. Members may serve up to 2 4-year terms, and any term that lasts for fewer than 2 years does not count towards the member's 2-term limit. On or before September 15, 2027, the office of legislative legal services and the legislative council staff are required to apportion the composition of the board so that the 5 elected directors will represent, to the extent practical, the people of the district on the basis of population. After the federal census in 2030, and after each federal census thereafter, the independent legislative redistricting commission is required to apportion the composition of the board so that the 5 elected directors will represent, to the extent practical, the people of the district on the basis of population. The 4 appointed board members are appointed by the governor with the consent of the senate. Of the 4 members:One member is appointed from a list of at least 3 nominees provided by the Denver regional council of governments;One member must be a current or former member of the union that represents the largest collective bargaining unit of RTD employees; and2 members are appointed at the governor's discretion. The 4 appointed members must represent diverse geographic areas of the district and are collectively required to possess expertise related to public finance, land use and multimodal transportation planning, transit operations, and transit agency programs serving disproportionately impacted communities. The governor may remove an appointed member for malfeasance in office, neglect of duty, failure to regularly attend meetings, or any other cause that renders the member incapable or unfit to discharge the duties of the board. A member to be appointed is required to disclose any potential conflicts of interest prior to confirmation and any conflicts that arise during the member's term to the board. Failure to disclose a conflict, or taking action on a matter in which the member has an undisclosed conflict of interest, constitutes cause for removal by the governor. The board may elect one member as chairperson of the board, one member as chairperson pro tempore of the board, and one or more individuals as secretary and treasurer of the board. The annual salary for an elected or appointed member whose term begins on or after January 1, 2029, is increased from $12,000 to $36,000, and the salary for the board chairperson is 150% of the salary of the other board members. Subregional service council coordination. Beginning in 2027, RTD is required to provide dedicated staff to co-chair and support each subregional service council (council) and must work with council members to identify a local leader to also co-chair each council. Beginning in 2028, the councils are required to make recommendations to the RTD board on:Aligning RTD transit services with local and regional plans;Implementing joint projects to address service gaps;Leveraging existing intergovernmental agreements and projects for expanded service delivery;Identifying strategies to expand funding; andConsiderations of equity, ridership, demand, and long-term regional growth. The RTD board is required to meet at least twice a year to receive recommendations from the councils. Reporting requirements. RTD is required to report to the house of representatives transportation, housing, and local government committee and the senate transportation and energy committee, or their successor committees, on the following:On or before December 31, 2027, progress toward the recommendations made to RTD by the 2025-2026 RTD accountability committee created in Senate Bill 25-161. RTD is also required to submit this report to the governor.On or before January 31, 2027, and on or before each January 31 thereafter: RTD's budget and financial performance;Ridership;The implementation of Senate Bill 25-161, including RTD's progress on delivering the projects identified in its 10-year strategic plan and its comprehensive operational analysis;Aligning with state climate goals; andThe implementation of this act, including RTD's progress on implementing the accessible transportation service plan;On or before January 31, 2028, the study and accessible transportation plan; and Annually beginning in 2028, the recommendations from the councils and RTD's responses to the recommendations. RTD is also required to report this information to the transportation legislation review committee.(Note: This summary applies to this bill as enacted.)
Rep. Meghan Lukens
Sponsored bills
The act creates the pesticide product disposal and container recycling enterprise (enterprise) in the department of agriculture (department). The board of directors of the enterprise (board) consists of the members of the state agricultural commission. The enterprise is tasked with developing and administering a program for the disposal of pesticide products not identified as exempt from the program by the board (eligible pesticide products) and with coordinating the recycling of pesticide product containers (program). Along with providing these business services, the program must:Organize eligible pesticide product disposal events for commercial applicators and private applicators across the state;Provide outreach and education to commercial applicators and private applicators on proper and safe disposal of eligible pesticide products and the recycling of their containers and the services provided by the program; andProvide certain business services to an applicant that registers an eligible pesticide product with the commissioner of agriculture for sale or distribution in the state (applicant). The enterprise operates as a government-owned business imposing:A pesticide product disposal fee for each eligible pesticide product that is disposed of through the program; andA pesticide registration product disposal fee on each applicant, which fee must be no more than $50 per eligible pesticide product. The fees are credited to the pesticide product disposal and container recycling enterprise cash fund (fund) for use by the enterprise to carry out the program. Money credited to the fund is continuously appropriated to the enterprise for the purposes set forth in the act. Commencing in 2028, the enterprise must annually report to the legislative committees with jurisdiction over agricultural matters the following information for the previous 12 months: the amount of fees collected, the total revenue generated by the fees, the location and times of disposal events held, a summary of the amount and types of products disposed of, and a description of education and outreach activities conducted. $19,875 is appropriated from the legal services cash fund to the department of law to provide legal services for the department in implementing the act. The appropriation is from revenue received from the department that is continuously appropriated to the department from the fund.(Note: This summary applies to this bill as enacted.)
The act requires a person seeking certification or recertification from the peace officers standards and training board to undergo training on various missing person alerts active within the state. The department of public safety is required to create a missing person alert training program for persons seeking certification or recertification of their peace officer status. The act requires an institution of higher education (institution) to either conduct a preliminary wellness assessment for no longer than 6 hours or immediately contact a law enforcement agency if a student is reported missing. If the student is not found within the 6-hour period, or if there is evidence of a credible risk to the student's safety, the institution shall notify the institution's police department or the nearest law enforcement agency with jurisdiction over the student's current local address on file with the institution or the student's permanent address on file with the institution if the institution does not have its own police department. An institution is required to adopt and publish a preliminary wellness assessment policy. The preliminary wellness assessment must consist of at least the following steps: A digital contact attempt, a residential verification, and an academic and social inquiry. An institution that conducts a preliminary wellness assessment is immune from civil liability if the institution acted in good faith. An institution is required to maintain contemporaneous written documentation regarding the steps the institution took to complete the preliminary wellness assessment. The records are subject to certain disclosure requirements.(Note: This summary applies to this bill as enacted.)
The act requires a minor who is under 18 years old to have written permission of the minor's parent or legal guardian to obtain an instruction permit to drive a motorcycle. The act does not apply to emancipated minors.(Note: This summary applies to this bill as enacted.)
Maddy summaryThis bill establishes a joint committee of five legislators to inform the Governor that the current legislative session is about to end. The committee, composed of three House members and two Senate members, will also ask the Governor if he has any final messages for the assembly. Although the bill was introduced in 2026, it was ultimately not passed as the Senate laid it on the table. Its primary function is a procedural step to ensure proper communication between the legislature and the executive branch at the conclusion of a session.
Under current law, if a defendant is found incompetent to proceed and the defendant will not be restored to competency in the foreseeable future, the court is required to dismiss charges against the defendant and the defendant, in limited circumstances, may be referred for certification for short-term treatment through a civil court process. The act maintains the requirement for the court to dismiss the charges against a defendant if the defendant's highest charged offense is among certain misdemeanor offenses, and the act maintains certification for short-term treatment as an option for the defendant. However, if the defendant is unrestorable or the defendant has reached the statutory maximum time permitted to be restored, the act authorizes the district attorney or county attorney (prosecution) to notify the court that the prosecution seeks civil commitment or an enhanced protective placement of a defendant if the prosecution can prove by clear and convincing evidence that the defendant:Has a mental disability or developmental disability;Committed an act that, in the absence of any mental disability or developmental disability, would constitute homicide, a crime of violence, or a felony that constitutes unlawful sexual behavior, and the act is or was charged in a criminal case in Colorado in which competency was raised; and Poses a substantial risk of serious harm to others. If the prosecution seeks civil commitment or an enhanced protective placement, the court is required to stay the order dismissing the defendant's case, set a trial within 91 days after the date the written notice was filed, and order the department of human services (CDHS) to identify an appropriate provider and placement for the defendant in the event a civil commitment or enhanced protective placement is granted. The defendant may stipulate that the court order a civil commitment or enhanced protective placement. If the court finds the prosecution has not met its burden, the court is required to deny the prosecution's request to civilly commit the defendant or order an enhanced protective placement of the defendant; except that the court may consider whether to order other civil proceedings. If the court finds the prosecution has met its burden, the court is required to order the civil commitment or enhanced protective placement of the defendant, place the defendant and issue any related orders, transfer jurisdiction of the civil commitment or enhanced protective placement to an appropriate civil court with jurisdiction, and dismiss the defendant's criminal case. When the court orders the civil commitment or enhanced protective placement, the court shall make a finding of the defendant's primary diagnosis that constitutes the mental disability or developmental disability. The court shall order the defendant civilly committed to the legal custody of CDHS unless the defendant's primary diagnosis is an intellectual and developmental disability (IDD) or a neurocognitive disorder, in which case, the court shall order an enhanced protective placement and legal custody of the defendant to the department of health care policy and financing (HCPF). If CDHS proposes placing the defendant into inpatient care, the court shall order, without further court review, that the defendant be placed into inpatient care at the discretion of CDHS if the court ordered a civil commitment or that the defendant be placed into inpatient care at the discretion of HCPF if the court ordered an enhanced protective placement. If CDHS has not identified an appropriate provider that is willing to accept placement of the defendant, the court shall set a review hearing within 35 days after the order for civil commitment or enhanced protective placement and order CDHS, in consultation with the behavioral health administration (BHA), to identify at least one appropriate provider. Upon receiving jurisdiction of a civil commitment or enhanced protective placement, the act requires the civil court to supervise the civil commitment or enhanced protective placement by notifying the county attorney, appointing an attorney to represent the respondent, and setting a review hearing. At the hearing, the respondent has the right to request modification of the terms of the civil commitment or enhanced protective placement and the right to periodic review, including whether the respondent qualifies for termination of the civil commitment or enhanced protective placement. The court is required to ensure the respondent is placed in the least-restrictive setting adequate to protect the victims and community. If the respondent is not placed into inpatient care at the discretion of CDHS, or if CDHS proposes to move the respondent into or out of inpatient care, the court shall, prior to modifying the civil commitment or enhanced protective placement to change the respondent's provider or placement, review the appropriateness of the proposed provider or placement. The provider charged with the physical care and custody of the respondent is required to submit a report to the court and the parties annually by the date the respondent was civilly committed or ordered into enhanced protective placement unless a substantially similar examination was ordered by the court within the previous 12 months. The act requires the court to terminate the respondent's civil commitment or enhanced protective placement if the respondent no longer poses a substantial risk of serious harm to others or the respondent does not have the applicable disorder or disability that is likely to cause the respondent to be a danger to the respondent's self or a danger to others and the respondent has demonstrated sufficient capacity and willingness to conform their conduct to the requirements of the law. If the respondent does not meet the criteria for termination, the respondent is not entitled to another termination trial within one year after the conclusion of the previous trial. The court shall convert a civil commitment to an enhanced protective placement if the respondent does not meet the criteria for termination but the respondent has a mental health disorder that is an IDD or a neurocognitive disorder, without having any other mental health disorder that is not an IDD or a neurocognitive disorder and that substantially contributes to whether the respondent is a danger to the respondent's self or a danger to others, or is gravely disabled. If the defendant does not meet the criteria for termination and has co-occurring mental health disorders that include an IDD or a neurocognitive disorder, the court may, upon the recommendation of CDHS, convert the civil commitment to an enhanced protective placement. The court shall convert an enhanced protective placement to a civil commitment if the respondent does not meet the criteria for termination and the respondent no longer has an IDD or a neurocognitive disorder that substantially contributes to whether the respondent is a danger to the respondent's self or a danger to others, or is gravely disabled. If the defendant does not meet the criteria for termination and has co-occurring mental health disorders that do not include an IDD or a neurocognitive disorder, the court may, upon the recommendation of CDHS, convert the enhanced protective placement to a civil commitment. Under current law, an emergency mental health hold (M1 hold) may be initiated against a person for not more than 72 hours if the person appears to have a mental health disorder and, as a result of the mental health disorder, appears to be a danger to the person's self or others, or appears to be gravely disabled. A person detained for an M1 hold and transported to an emergency medical services facility or facility designated by the commissioner (facility) of the BHA is required to receive an evaluation as soon as possible after the person presents to the facility. The act authorizes a person who has an M1 hold initiated against them while in confinement to receive an evaluation at the person's place of confinement rather than being transported to a facility. If the person is released from confinement while under an M1 hold, the person responsible for the confinement is required to coordinate with the BHA to transfer the person to a facility. Under current law, if a person under an M1 hold meets the criteria for certification for short-term treatment, the person may be certified for not more than 3 months. Rather than requiring an M1 hold as a prerequisite to short-term certification or certification for long-term care and treatment, the act authorizes a person to be certified if the person:Has been advised of the availability of, but has not accepted, voluntary treatment or with consideration of all reasonably available information, is believed will not remain in voluntary treatment; and By clear and convincing evidence, has a mental health disorder and, as a result of the mental health disorder, the person is a danger to the person's self, a danger to others, or gravely disabled. A person may not be certified for short-term treatment or long-term care and treatment if the person has an IDD or neurocognitive disorder without any other mental health disorder that is not an IDD or neurocognitive disorder and that substantially contributes to whether the respondent is a danger to the respondent's self or a danger to others, or is gravely disabled. If a respondent is certified, the court shall order CDHS to provide care coordination and make diligent efforts to find a provider for the respondent that is willing to hold the certification. The respondent may be certified for long-term care and treatment if the respondent continues to meet the criteria and standards for certification for short-term treatment. The certification terminates when the professional person in charge of the respondent's treatment and the BHA determine the respondent no longer meets the criteria for certification. To terminate a short-term treatment certification less than 30 days after the initial certification, two professional persons are required to individually consult and review the respondent's case and agree that the respondent no longer meets the criteria for certification. A court may order the short-term or long-term protective placement of a person:Who, by clear and convincing evidence, has a neurocognitive disorder;When reasonable grounds exist to believe that the person will not remain in a voluntary treatment program; andWho, by clear and convincing evidence, is a danger to the person's self, a danger to others. The act aligns the provisions for short-term and long-term protective placement with certifications for short-term treatment and long-term care and treatment. No later than October 1, 2027, the act requires CDHS to construct and operate an outpatient treatment facility for adults with behavioral health needs, including adults who are found incompetent to proceed and unlikely to be restored to competency. To implement the act, for the 2025-26 state fiscal year, the act appropriates to CDHS $535,934 from the general fund and $4,777,898 from the capital construction fund. To implement the act, the act makes the following appropriations for state fiscal year 2026-27:$17,802,360 to CDHS from the general fund, of which $242,323 is reappropriated to the department of law and $52,644 to the office of information technology;To the judicial department, $26,296 from the judicial department information technology cash fund and $5,401,437 from the general fund, of which $1,719,409 is for use by the office of state public defender and specified independent agencies;$842,808 to HCPF from the general fund; and$150,000 to the department of law from the general fund.(Note: This summary applies to this bill as enacted.)
The act:Allows the department of public health and environment (department) to expend money from the community impact cash fund to provide grants for municipal solid waste landfill methane emission reduction projects;Requires the environmental justice advisory board to prioritize a grant request from a local government that owns or operates a municipal solid waste landfill over a grant request from a private entity that owns or operates a municipal solid waste landfill;Requires an entity that receives money from the department to use the money as supplemental funding only; andAmends the definition of 'disproportionately impacted community'.(Note: This summary applies to this bill as enacted.)
The act requires the secretary of state to refer a ballot issue at the November 2026 general election to seek voter approval for the state, beginning in the 2026-27 state fiscal year, to retain and spend an amount of state revenue equal to the amount of state public K-12 education funding in excess of the limitation on state fiscal year spending and to increase state public K-12 education funding by up to 2% per year for 10 years. The act directs legislative council staff to determine the amount of state public K-12 education funding and describes how legislative council staff will make that determination. The act creates a positive factor to increase state public K-12 education funding. The amount of the positive factor compounds annually for 10 years. The positive factor for the 2026-27 budget year is 2% of the program foundation calculated for the 2025-26 budget year. For the 2027-28 through 2034-35 budget years, it is the sum of 2% of the prior year's program foundation plus the prior year's positive factor. For the 2035-36 budget year and beyond, it is the sum of 2% of the 2034-35 program foundation plus the 2034-35 positive factor. A district's share of the positive factor is calculated proportionally based on the district's total program under the new school finance formula relative to the statewide total program. A district may only use its positive factor funding for increasing teacher pay, improving teacher retention, lowering class sizes, and increasing access to career and technical courses. For the 2026-27 state fiscal year, the children's account consists of an amount of money equal to the amount of state revenues that the state retains for a given fiscal year pursuant to voter approval of the act. For state fiscal years commencing on or after July 1, 2027, the account consists of that same amount minus an amount equal to the total dollar amount of warrants issued by the state treasurer to reimburse local governments for property tax exemptions. Money in the account must first be spent to pay districts their positive factor, then any remaining funds are appropriated for disability services and school services and to increase annual contact hours, and finally to programs prioritizing child care and full-day preschool. The act directs the state auditor to conduct and publish a report on excess state revenues for each state fiscal year that the state retains and spends state revenues in excess of the limitation on state fiscal year spending. That report must include descriptions of:The amount of state revenues that the state retained and spent that would otherwise have been in excess of the limitation on state fiscal year spending; andHow the state expended the state revenues that the state retained and spent that would otherwise have been in excess of the limitation on state fiscal year spending. Beginning August 1, 2027, the act requires each local education provider to post, online for free public access in a format that can be downloaded and sorted, its actual expenditures of any positive factor received. Lastly, the act updates provisions regarding the expanded earned income tax credit, the family affordability tax credit, and the affordable housing financing fund to ensure that voter approval of the act does not adversely impact those programs.(Note: This summary applies to this bill as enacted.)
The act requires a licensee, nurse, or certified midwife who performs a medical forensic examination to inform the victim-survivor about how to determine when the testing related to the examination is complete and how to obtain the results and records. The act subjects a cause of action against a person arising from any protected statement by a victim-survivor to a special motion to dismiss unless the court determines that the plaintiff has established that there is a reasonable likelihood that the plaintiff will prevail on the claim. The act makes a predispute arbitration agreement and predispute joint-action waiver void and unenforceable upon request of an individual who alleges conduct that results in a sexual harassment dispute or a sexual misconduct dispute or upon request of a named representative of a joint action, class action, or collective action that results in a sexual harassment dispute or a sexual misconduct dispute. The act requires a judge to allow a forensic scientist to testify remotely in a criminal proceeding if a party requests and both parties consent to the remote testimony. The act authorizes the court to order that the testimony of a victim-survivor of domestic violence, unlawful sexual behavior, stalking, human trafficking for involuntary servitude, or human trafficking for sexual servitude be taken in a room other than the courtroom and be televised by closed-circuit television in the courtroom under certain circumstances. The act requires peace officer annual in-service training programs to include a 2-hour training to improve a peace officer's understanding of the impact of trauma on victim-survivors of crimes and the optimal way for a peace officer to respond to victim-survivors who are experiencing trauma and includes trauma-informed investigation and response training as a permissible use of peace officer training and support fund money. The act renames the Colorado sexual assault forensic medical evidence review board as the Colorado sexual assault response review board and adds 4 members to the board.(Note: This summary applies to this bill as enacted.)
Maddy summaryThis bill is a Senate Joint Resolution that formally recognizes the Colorado Mining Association for its 150th anniversary in 2026. It highlights the organization's historical significance and its role in supporting Colorado's mining industry, which contributes billions to the state's economy and supports tens of thousands of jobs. The resolution acknowledges the association's partnerships with state and federal agencies in promoting safety, environmental stewardship, and responsible mineral development. This measure does not change any laws or policies but serves as an official acknowledgment of the association's contributions to Colorado's history and economy.